Sample Test for Test series on CSSADDA for Combined SO/Steno LDCE

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Question 1 of 10

1. Question
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the commencement of the election process in India?
- The recommendation for election is made by the government and the notification for election is issued by the Election Commission.
- The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the Home Ministry at the Centre and Home Departments in the States.
- The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the President and Governors of the States concerned.
- Both the exercises of making a recommendation for election and that of issuing a notification in respect of it are done by Election Commission.
Correct

As per Art. 324, the Election Commission has the all the powers of conducting elections in India. As far as the recommendation of elections is concerned, it is one of the functions of the Government to recommend elections to the President who, acting on the advice of the Govt., directs the Constitutional body (Election Commission) to conduct elections

Incorrect

As per Art. 324, the Election Commission has the all the powers of conducting elections in India. As far as the recommendation of elections is concerned, it is one of the functions of the Government to recommend elections to the President who, acting on the advice of the Govt., directs the Constitutional body (Election Commission) to conduct elections

Unattempted

As per Art. 324, the Election Commission has the all the powers of conducting elections in India. As far as the recommendation of elections is concerned, it is one of the functions of the Government to recommend elections to the President who, acting on the advice of the Govt., directs the Constitutional body (Election Commission) to conduct elections
Question 2 of 10

2. Question
Who among the following have the right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha?
- Elected members of the Lower House of the Parliament
- Elected members of the Upper House of the Parliament
- Elected members of the Upper House of the State Legislature
- Elected members of the Lower House of the state Legislature
Correct

All the members of both the Houses of the Parliament and the State Legislatures and also every citizen of India above the age of 18 years has the right to vote in the elections to the Lok Sabha. But only the elected members of the State Legislatures have the right to vote in the elections to the Rajya Sabha (Article 80). Hence, only the members of the Legislative Assemblies of States have the right to vote in the elections to both Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.

Incorrect

All the members of both the Houses of the Parliament and the State Legislatures and also every citizen of India above the age of 18 years has the right to vote in the elections to the Lok Sabha. But only the elected members of the State Legislatures have the right to vote in the elections to the Rajya Sabha (Article 80). Hence, only the members of the Legislative Assemblies of States have the right to vote in the elections to both Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.

Unattempted

All the members of both the Houses of the Parliament and the State Legislatures and also every citizen of India above the age of 18 years has the right to vote in the elections to the Lok Sabha. But only the elected members of the State Legislatures have the right to vote in the elections to the Rajya Sabha (Article 80). Hence, only the members of the Legislative Assemblies of States have the right to vote in the elections to both Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Question 3 of 10

3. Question
No one can be compelled to sing the National Anthem since

1. it will be violative of the Right to freedom of speech and expression.

2. it will be violative of the Right to freedom of conscience and practice and propagation of religion.

3. there is no legal provision obliging any one to sing the National Anthem.
- 1 and 2 are correct
- 2 and 3 are correct
- 1, 2 and 3 are correct
- None is correct
Correct

A person cannot be compelled to sing the national anthem of India but at the same time it is enshrined as one of the Fundamental Duties in Art.51A, to respect our national anthem. Therefore, one may choose not to sing the national anthem, though it is desirable that he/she does. However, showing disrespect to the same may amount to an act of sedition, depending on the degree of disrespect shown, and may attract legal provisions.

Incorrect

A person cannot be compelled to sing the national anthem of India but at the same time it is enshrined as one of the Fundamental Duties in Art.51A, to respect our national anthem. Therefore, one may choose not to sing the national anthem, though it is desirable that he/she does. However, showing disrespect to the same may amount to an act of sedition, depending on the degree of disrespect shown, and may attract legal provisions.

Unattempted

A person cannot be compelled to sing the national anthem of India but at the same time it is enshrined as one of the Fundamental Duties in Art.51A, to respect our national anthem. Therefore, one may choose not to sing the national anthem, though it is desirable that he/she does. However, showing disrespect to the same may amount to an act of sedition, depending on the degree of disrespect shown, and may attract legal provisions.
Question 4 of 10

4. Question
Which one of the following statements is correct?

The Prime Minister of India…
- is free to choose his minister only from among those who are members of either House of the Parliament
- can choose his cabinet colleagues after due counseling by the President of India in this regard
- has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as ministers in his cabinet
- has only limited powers in the choice of his cabinet colleagues because of the discretionary powers vested with the President of India
Correct

The Prime Minister has complete discretion in the matter of appointment of cabinet ministers provided the person so chosen becomes a Member of Parliament (if not an MP at present) within a period of six months from the date of appointment as provided in Art.75(5).

Incorrect

The Prime Minister has complete discretion in the matter of appointment of cabinet ministers provided the person so chosen becomes a Member of Parliament (if not an MP at present) within a period of six months from the date of appointment as provided in Art.75(5).

Unattempted

The Prime Minister has complete discretion in the matter of appointment of cabinet ministers provided the person so chosen becomes a Member of Parliament (if not an MP at present) within a period of six months from the date of appointment as provided in Art.75(5).
Question 5 of 10

5. Question
Consider the following statements:

Assertion A:): The reservation of thirty-three percent of seats for women in Parliament and State Legislature does not require Constitutional Amendment.

Reason (R): Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three per cent of seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional Amendment. In the context of the above two statements,

which one of the following is correct?
- Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
- Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
- A is true but R is false
- A is false but R is true :Correct:D :MsgCorrect: Assertion
- statement is false because the constitution, under Articles 80 and 81, provides for the composition of both the Houses of the Parliament. So, in order to make a reservation of thirty-three percent of seats for women in the Parliament, a constitutional amendment will have to be made to the said Articles. Reason(R) statement is correct because political parties are not constitutional bodies and thus a change in their constitution is their internal matter for which no constitutional amendment is required. :MsgIncorrect: Assertion
- statement is false because the constitution, under Articles 80 and 81, provides for the composition of both the Houses of the Parliament. So, in order to make a reservation of thirty-three percent of seats for women in the Parliament, a constitutional amendment will have to be made to the said Articles. Reason(R) statement is correct because political parties are not constitutional bodies and thus a change in their constitution is their internal matter for which no constitutional amendment is required. :hint:
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 6 of 10

6. Question
Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection Act?
- Second Schedule
- Fifth Schedule
- Eighth Schedule
- Tenth Schedule
Correct

The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution contains the provisions related to disqualification of Members of Parliament on the grounds of defection. It was added by the 52nd amendment to the Constitution in 1985. The purpose of the Anti-defection Act is to prevent horse-trading of elected representatives.

Incorrect

The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution contains the provisions related to disqualification of Members of Parliament on the grounds of defection. It was added by the 52nd amendment to the Constitution in 1985. The purpose of the Anti-defection Act is to prevent horse-trading of elected representatives.

Unattempted

The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution contains the provisions related to disqualification of Members of Parliament on the grounds of defection. It was added by the 52nd amendment to the Constitution in 1985. The purpose of the Anti-defection Act is to prevent horse-trading of elected representatives.
Question 7 of 10

7. Question
Consider the following statements:

An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the:
1. Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha
3. State Legislatures
4. President Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- 1 alone
- 1, 2 and 3
- 2, 3 and 4
- 1 and 2
Correct

A constitutional amendment can be initiated by the introduction of a Bill in either House of the Parliament as per Art.368. The Bill further needs to be passed in both the Houses by a majority of not less than twothirds of the members of each House, present and voting.

Incorrect

A constitutional amendment can be initiated by the introduction of a Bill in either House of the Parliament as per Art.368. The Bill further needs to be passed in both the Houses by a majority of not less than twothirds of the members of each House, present and voting.

Unattempted

A constitutional amendment can be initiated by the introduction of a Bill in either House of the Parliament as per Art.368. The Bill further needs to be passed in both the Houses by a majority of not less than twothirds of the members of each House, present and voting.
Question 8 of 10

8. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the National Human Rights Commission of India:

1. Its Chairman must be a retired Chief Justice of India.

2. It has formations in each state as State Human Rights Commission.

3. Its powers are only recommendatory in nature.

4. It is mandatory to appoint a woman as a member of the Commission.

Which of the above statements are correct?
- 1, 2, 3 and 4
- 2 and 4
- 2 and 3
- 1 and 3
Correct

National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body set up in 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 to inquire into matters of violations of human rights, visit jails etc. for studying the living conditions of the inmates, promote research, recommend measures to improve the state of human rights followed. The Act provides that the Chairman of the Commission must be a retired Chief Justice of India and as mentioned above, it can only recommend measures to improve. Its orders do not have the force of law.

Incorrect

National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body set up in 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 to inquire into matters of violations of human rights, visit jails etc. for studying the living conditions of the inmates, promote research, recommend measures to improve the state of human rights followed. The Act provides that the Chairman of the Commission must be a retired Chief Justice of India and as mentioned above, it can only recommend measures to improve. Its orders do not have the force of law.

Unattempted

National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body set up in 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 to inquire into matters of violations of human rights, visit jails etc. for studying the living conditions of the inmates, promote research, recommend measures to improve the state of human rights followed. The Act provides that the Chairman of the Commission must be a retired Chief Justice of India and as mentioned above, it can only recommend measures to improve. Its orders do not have the force of law.
Question 9 of 10

9. Question
Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:

1. He is appointed by the President of India.
2. He must have the same qualifications as are required for a Judge of the Supreme Court.
3. He must be a member of either House of Parliament.
4. He can be removed by impeachment by parliament.

Which of these statements are correct?
- 1 and 2
- 1 and 3
- 2, 3 and 4
- 3 and 4
Correct

Art.76 is the provision concerned with the appointment of the Attorney General of India. It provides that:

(i) the Attorney General shall be appointed by the President,

(ii) he must be qualified to become a Judge of the Supreme Court and he shall remain in office during the pleasure of the President.

Incorrect

Art.76 is the provision concerned with the appointment of the Attorney General of India. It provides that:

(i) the Attorney General shall be appointed by the President,

(ii) he must be qualified to become a Judge of the Supreme Court and he shall remain in office during the pleasure of the President.

Unattempted

Art.76 is the provision concerned with the appointment of the Attorney General of India. It provides that:

(i) the Attorney General shall be appointed by the President,

(ii) he must be qualified to become a Judge of the Supreme Court and he shall remain in office during the pleasure of the President.
Question 10 of 10

10. Question
In the Indian Constitution, the Right to Equality is granted by five Articles. They are:
- Article 16 to Article 20
- Article 15 to Article 19
- Article 14 to Article 18
- Article 13 to Article 17
Correct

The fundamental right to equality finds place in many of the constitutional provisions. Art.14 provides for equality before law to all citizens, Art. 15 gives the right of not being discriminated on grounds of caste, religion, sex, race and place of birth, Art. 16 provides the fundamental right of equality in matters of public employment, Art.17 prohibits untouchability and Art. 18 abolishes conferment of titles on individuals.

Incorrect

The fundamental right to equality finds place in many of the constitutional provisions. Art.14 provides for equality before law to all citizens, Art. 15 gives the right of not being discriminated on grounds of caste, religion, sex, race and place of birth, Art. 16 provides the fundamental right of equality in matters of public employment, Art.17 prohibits untouchability and Art. 18 abolishes conferment of titles on individuals.

Unattempted

The fundamental right to equality finds place in many of the constitutional provisions. Art.14 provides for equality before law to all citizens, Art. 15 gives the right of not being discriminated on grounds of caste, religion, sex, race and place of birth, Art. 16 provides the fundamental right of equality in matters of public employment, Art.17 prohibits untouchability and Art. 18 abolishes conferment of titles on individuals.

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Question 1 of 10

1. Question
Which of the following statements is/are correct under the Right to Information Act, 2005 ?
1. It is not necessary to supply all kinds of information.
2. Information pertaining to corruption in Central Reserve Police Force must be supplied.
3. Information pertaining to violation of human rights in Intelligence Bureau must be supplied.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 2 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 2 of 10

2. Question
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Under the Right to Information Act, 2005, when only a part of the information is supplied severing the same from the rest of the information which cannot be supplied, the applicant must be given notice indicating
1. reasons for the severance.
2. address of the authority which had taken the decision.
3. his/her right to review the decision.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 3 of 10

3. Question
Which one of the following statements is incorrect under the Right to Information Act, 2005?
- (a) If an information is not supplied within speciﬁed time, it shall be presumed that the request for information has been refused under Section 7(2) of the Act.
- (b) If a request for information is deemed to have been refused under Section 7(2) of the Act, it shall be supplied free of cost.
- (c) If a request for information has been refused under Section 7(1) of the Act, reasons for such rejection need not be communicated.
- (d) Every communication relating to refusal of request for information under Section 7(1) of the RTI Act, 2005 must be accompanied by the particulars of the appellate authority.
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 4 of 10

4. Question
Under the Right to Information Act, 2005, an Information Commissioner can be removed from his office, if he
1. has been convicted of an offence involving moral turpitude
2. is unﬁt to continue in office by reason of his mental inﬁrmity
3. has acquired a ﬁnancial interest which is likely to prejudicially affect his functions
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Any of the above three grounds
- (d) 3 only
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 5 of 10

5. Question
Consider the following statements:
1. The RTI Act, 2005 prohibits disclosure of information regarding infringement of copyright subsisting in the State.
2. Information regarding trade secrets can be provided in larger public interest.
3. An information Commissioner cannot be removed from his office on the ground of incompetence.
Which of the statements given above is/are Incorrect?
- (a) 1, 2 and 3
- (b) 1 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1 and 3 only
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 6 of 10

6. Question
Which one of the following statements with regard to the Right to Information Act, 2005 is not correct?
- (a) The Act has an overriding effect.
- (b) The jurisdiction of civil courts is barred in respect of any order made under the Act.
- (c) No suit, prosecution or other legal proceeding shall lie against any person for anything done by him under the Act.
- (d) The Act does not apply to Narcotics Control Bureau.
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 7 of 10

7. Question
The Central Information Commission has no power
- (a) of a civil court in receiving evidence on affidavit
- (b) in entertaining directly an application for information
- (c) to issue summons for examination of witnesses
- (d) to decide reasonableness of fee decided by the Public Information Ofﬁcer for supplying information
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 8 of 10

8. Question
Which one of the following statements pertaining to penalty under the Right to Information Act, 2005 is not correct?
- (a) The refusal to receive an application for supplying information without any reasonable cause may entail a ﬁne of Rs 250 per day with a maximum of Rs 25,000.
- (b) The refusal to supply information without any reasonable cause may entail a ﬁne of Rs. 250 per day with a maximum of Rs. 25,000.
- (c) Supplying wrong information may entail a ﬁne of V 250 per day with a maximum of Rs. 25,000.
- (d) The refusal to receive an application for supplying information or refusing information may entail a ﬁne of Rs. 25,000.
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 9 of 10

9. Question
Which one of the following information cannot be refused under the Right to Information Act, 2005?
- (a) information relating to intellectual property whose disclosure is not in larger public interest
- (b) Information which might impede the process of apprehension of offenders
- (c) Information obtained by a person in his ﬁduciary relationship, the disclosure of which is not in larger public interest
- (d) Reasons concerning the decisions of Council of Ministers except those concerning matters which have been exempted under Section 8
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 10 of 10

10. Question
Which one of the following statements states the correct procedure for appointment of the Chief Information Commissioner?
- (a) The Chief Information Commissioner is appointed by the President of India.
- (b) The Chief Information Commissioner is appointed by the President of India on the recommendations of a committee of three persons which includes Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha.
- (c) The Chief Information Commissioner is appointed by the President of India on the recommendations of a committee consisting of three persons which includes Leader of Opposition or, if no such leader has been recognized, the leader of the single largest group in opposition in the House of the People.
- (d) The Chief Information Commissioner is appointed by the President of India on the recommendations of a committee of three persons nominated by the Prime Minister.
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted

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Question 1 of 10

1. Question
The Public Accounts Committee consists of not more than:
- 22 Members, 15 Members elected by Lok Sabha and not more than 7 Members elected by Rajya Sabha.
- 23 Members, 16 Members elected by Lok Sabha and not more than 7 Members elected by Rajya Sabha.
- 22 Members, 7 Members elected by Lok Sabha and not more than 15 Members elected by Rajya Sabha.
- 23 Members, 7 Members elected by Lok Sabha and not more than 16 Members elected by Rajya Sabha.
Correct

Incorrect

:Hint:

Unattempted

:Hint:
Question 2 of 10

2. Question
The term “point of order” in the context of parliamentary proceedings refers to:
- a request by a member to make a formal statement
- a request by a member to ask a question out of turn
- a member’s objection regarding the violation of parliamentary rules
- a member’s request for an extension of time for a debate
Correct

Incorrect

:Hint:

Unattempted

:Hint:
Question 3 of 10

3. Question
Which constitutional body is responsible for conducting enquiries and taking appropriate action in cases of violation of the Code of Conduct by MPs?
- The Election Commission of India
- The Lok Sabha Speaker
- The Rajya Sabha Chairman
- The Ethics Committee of the Parliament
Correct

Incorrect

:Hint:

Unattempted

:Hint:
Question 4 of 10

4. Question
The time when the Members of Parliament can raise issues of urgent public importance is called
- Notice period
- Cooling-off period
- Stipulated interval
- Zero hour
Correct

Incorrect

:Hint:

Unattempted

:Hint:
Question 5 of 10

5. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Money Bill:
1. It can be introduced in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha.
2. It can be returned by the President for reconsideration.
3. It requires the consent of the President before introduction.
4. It cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the above statements are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 1, 2, 3 and 4
- 2, 3 and 4 only
- 3 and 4 only
Correct

Incorrect

:Hint:

Unattempted

:Hint:
Question 6 of 10

6. Question
Which of the following motions is used to adjourn the House to discuss a definite matter of urgent public importance?
- Adjournment Motion
- Calling Attention Motion
- Privilege Motion
- No-Confidence Motion
Correct

Incorrect

:Hint:

Unattempted

:Hint:
Question 7 of 10

7. Question
In order that a motion may be admissible, it shall satisfy which one of the following conditions?
- It shall not raise substantially one definite issue.
- It shall not contain arguments, inferences, ironical expressions, imputations or defamatory statements.
- It shall refer to the conduct or character of persons.
- It shall not be restricted to a matter of recent occurrence.
Correct

Incorrect

:Hint:

Unattempted

:Hint:
Question 8 of 10

8. Question
If the Speaker is satisfied, after calling for such information from the member who has given notice and from the Minister as the Speaker may consider necessary, that the matter is urgent and is of sufficient importance to be raised in the House at an early date, the Speaker may admit the notice provided that
- if an early opportunity is otherwise available for the discussion of the matter, the Speaker may admit the notice.
- if an early opportunity is otherwise available for the discussion of the matter, the Speaker may refuse to admit the notice.
- allow such time for discussion not exceeding four hours at or before the end of the sitting.
- allow such time for discussion not exceeding three hours at or before the end of the sitting.
Correct

Incorrect

:Hint:

Unattempted

:Hint:
Question 9 of 10

9. Question
Consider the following statements relating to grant of leave of the House of the People for moving a No-Conﬁdence Motion :
1. The Speaker calls upon members who are in favour of leave being granted to rise in their seats.
2. Leave is deemed to be granted by the House if not less than ﬁfty-five members rise.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Correct

Incorrect

:Hint:

Unattempted

:Hint:
Question 10 of 10

10. Question
Consider the following statements about statement by a minister who has resigned:
1. A member who has resigned the ofﬁce of minister may, with the consent of the Speaker, make a personal statement in the House in explanation of his resignation.
2. No such statement can be made in the House by a minister who is not a Member of Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Correct

Incorrect

:Hint:

Unattempted

:Hint:

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AOBR/TOBR
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Question 1 of 10

1. Question

Category: AOBR/TOBR
Which one of the following Ministries/Departments is concerned with matters related to the Hotel Corporation of India?
- Ministry of Tourism
- Department of Public Enterprises
- Department of Commerce
- Ministry of Civil Aviation
Correct

Hotel Corporation of India falls under purview of MINISTRY OF CIVIL AVIATION.

Incorrect

Hotel Corporation of India falls under purview of MINISTRY OF CIVIL AVIATION.

Unattempted

Hotel Corporation of India falls under purview of MINISTRY OF CIVIL AVIATION.
Question 2 of 10

2. Question

Category: AOBR/TOBR
Which one of the following Acts is not directly related to the protection of Intellectual Property Rights?
- The Transfer of Property Act, 1882
- The Semiconductor Integrated Circuits Layout Designs Act, 2000
- The Trade and Merchandise Marks Act, 1958
- The Patents Act, 1970
Correct

The matters of protection of Intellectual Property Rights are handled by DEPARTMENT FOR PROMOTION OF INDUSTRY AND INTERNAL TRADE:

V. PROTECTION OF INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY RIGHTS (INDUSTRIAL
PROPERTY)
28. Standardisation of international products and raw materials.
29. The Designs Act, 2000 (16 of 2000).
30. The Trade and Merchandise Marks Act, 1958 (43 of 1958).
31. The Patents Act, 1970 (39 of 1970).
31A. Matters concerning World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) including coordination
with other concerned Ministries or Departments.
31B. The Copyright Act, 1957 (14 of 1957) and International Conventions on Copyrights.
31C. The Semiconductor Integrated Circuits Layout Design Act, 2000 (37 of 2000).

Incorrect

The matters of protection of Intellectual Property Rights are handled by DEPARTMENT FOR PROMOTION OF INDUSTRY AND INTERNAL TRADE:

V. PROTECTION OF INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY RIGHTS (INDUSTRIAL
PROPERTY)
28. Standardisation of international products and raw materials.
29. The Designs Act, 2000 (16 of 2000).
30. The Trade and Merchandise Marks Act, 1958 (43 of 1958).
31. The Patents Act, 1970 (39 of 1970).
31A. Matters concerning World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) including coordination
with other concerned Ministries or Departments.
31B. The Copyright Act, 1957 (14 of 1957) and International Conventions on Copyrights.
31C. The Semiconductor Integrated Circuits Layout Design Act, 2000 (37 of 2000).

Unattempted

The matters of protection of Intellectual Property Rights are handled by DEPARTMENT FOR PROMOTION OF INDUSTRY AND INTERNAL TRADE:

V. PROTECTION OF INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY RIGHTS (INDUSTRIAL
PROPERTY)
28. Standardisation of international products and raw materials.
29. The Designs Act, 2000 (16 of 2000).
30. The Trade and Merchandise Marks Act, 1958 (43 of 1958).
31. The Patents Act, 1970 (39 of 1970).
31A. Matters concerning World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) including coordination
with other concerned Ministries or Departments.
31B. The Copyright Act, 1957 (14 of 1957) and International Conventions on Copyrights.
31C. The Semiconductor Integrated Circuits Layout Design Act, 2000 (37 of 2000).
Question 3 of 10

3. Question

Category: AOBR/TOBR
Which one of the following cadres is not managed by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry?
- Indian Economic Service
- Indian Trade Service
- Indian Supply Service
- Indian Inspection Service
Correct

MANAGEMENT OF THE INDIAN TRADE SERVICES (ITS)
12. Cadre Management of the Indian Trade Service and all matter pertaining to training, career
planning and manpower planning for the service.
13. Cadre Management of Indian Supply Service and all matter pertaining to training, career
planning and manpower planning for the Service.2
14. Cadre Management of Indian Inspection Service and all matter pertaining to training, career
planning and manpower planning for the Service.

Incorrect

MANAGEMENT OF THE INDIAN TRADE SERVICES (ITS)
12. Cadre Management of the Indian Trade Service and all matter pertaining to training, career
planning and manpower planning for the service.
13. Cadre Management of Indian Supply Service and all matter pertaining to training, career
planning and manpower planning for the Service.2
14. Cadre Management of Indian Inspection Service and all matter pertaining to training, career
planning and manpower planning for the Service.

Unattempted

MANAGEMENT OF THE INDIAN TRADE SERVICES (ITS)
12. Cadre Management of the Indian Trade Service and all matter pertaining to training, career
planning and manpower planning for the service.
13. Cadre Management of Indian Supply Service and all matter pertaining to training, career
planning and manpower planning for the Service.2
14. Cadre Management of Indian Inspection Service and all matter pertaining to training, career
planning and manpower planning for the Service.
Question 4 of 10

4. Question

Category: AOBR/TOBR
Which one of the following ministries would you apply to for obtaining an industrial license under the provisions of the Dangerous Machine (Regulation) Act, 1983 (35 of 1983)?
- Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises
- Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
- Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare
- Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Correct

Administration of the Dangerous Machine (Regulation) Act, 1983 (35 of 1983) is under Department of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.

Incorrect

Administration of the Dangerous Machine (Regulation) Act, 1983 (35 of 1983) is under Department of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.

Unattempted

Administration of the Dangerous Machine (Regulation) Act, 1983 (35 of 1983) is under Department of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.
Question 5 of 10

5. Question

Category: AOBR/TOBR
A group of people want to visit Mansarovar for pilgrimage. To which one among the following ministries of Government of India should they approach?
- Ministry of Home Affairs
- Ministry of External Affairs
- Ministry of Culture
- Ministry of Defence
Correct

Matters related to Travel arrangements for traders and pilgrims from India to Tibet region of China are handled by Ministry of External Affairs.

Incorrect

Matters related to Travel arrangements for traders and pilgrims from India to Tibet region of China are handled by Ministry of External Affairs.

Unattempted

Matters related to Travel arrangements for traders and pilgrims from India to Tibet region of China are handled by Ministry of External Affairs.
Question 6 of 10

6. Question
At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
- Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climatic change.
- Ministry of Panchayat Raj
- Ministry of Rural Development
- Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Correct

All matters including legislation relating to the rights of forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes on forest lands are subject matter of Ministry of Tribal Affairs.The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change will be responsible for overall policy in relation to forests, except all matters, including legislation, relating to the rights of forest dwelling Schedule Tribes on forest lands.

Incorrect

All matters including legislation relating to the rights of forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes on forest lands are subject matter of Ministry of Tribal Affairs.The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change will be responsible for overall policy in relation to forests, except all matters, including legislation, relating to the rights of forest dwelling Schedule Tribes on forest lands.

Unattempted

All matters including legislation relating to the rights of forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes on forest lands are subject matter of Ministry of Tribal Affairs.The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change will be responsible for overall policy in relation to forests, except all matters, including legislation, relating to the rights of forest dwelling Schedule Tribes on forest lands.
Question 7 of 10

7. Question
Drafting of Bills is the responsibility of
- The Ministry/Department concerned
- The Ministry of Law and Justice
- The Cabinet Secretariat
- The Ministry of Home Affairs
Correct

LEGISLATIVE DEPARTMENT of Ministry of Law and Justice looks after the drafting of Bills, including the business of the Draftsmen in Select Committees, drafting and promulgation of Ordinances and Regulations; enactment of State Acts as President’s Acts, whenever required; scrutiny of Statutory Rules and Orders (except notifications under clause (a) of section 3 and sections 3A, 3D, 7 and section 8A of the National Highways Act, 1956 (48 of 1956).

Incorrect

LEGISLATIVE DEPARTMENT of Ministry of Law and Justice looks after the drafting of Bills, including the business of the Draftsmen in Select Committees, drafting and promulgation of Ordinances and Regulations; enactment of State Acts as President’s Acts, whenever required; scrutiny of Statutory Rules and Orders (except notifications under clause (a) of section 3 and sections 3A, 3D, 7 and section 8A of the National Highways Act, 1956 (48 of 1956).

Unattempted

LEGISLATIVE DEPARTMENT of Ministry of Law and Justice looks after the drafting of Bills, including the business of the Draftsmen in Select Committees, drafting and promulgation of Ordinances and Regulations; enactment of State Acts as President’s Acts, whenever required; scrutiny of Statutory Rules and Orders (except notifications under clause (a) of section 3 and sections 3A, 3D, 7 and section 8A of the National Highways Act, 1956 (48 of 1956).
Question 8 of 10

8. Question
Entering into treaties and agreements with foreign countries relating to trade and commerce in food grains and other foodstuffs is the responsibility of
- Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution
- Directorate General of Foreign Trade
- Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- Ministry of Foreign Affairs
Correct

DEPARTMENT OF FOOD AND PUBLIC DISTRIBUTION looks after the subject matters of ‘Entering into treaties and agreements with foreign countries and implementing treaties, agreements, conventions with foreign countries relating to trade and commerce in foodgrains and other foodstuffs.’

Incorrect

DEPARTMENT OF FOOD AND PUBLIC DISTRIBUTION looks after the subject matters of ‘Entering into treaties and agreements with foreign countries and implementing treaties, agreements, conventions with foreign countries relating to trade and commerce in foodgrains and other foodstuffs.’

Unattempted

DEPARTMENT OF FOOD AND PUBLIC DISTRIBUTION looks after the subject matters of ‘Entering into treaties and agreements with foreign countries and implementing treaties, agreements, conventions with foreign countries relating to trade and commerce in foodgrains and other foodstuffs.’
Question 9 of 10

9. Question
In which one among the following cases, the Cabinet approval is NOT required?
- To summon and prorogue the House of the Parliament
- To dissolve the House of the People
- To create an institution of national importance
- To withdraw prosecution, instituted by the Government of India, in accordance with the competent legal advice
Correct

For all the the cases except to withdraw prosecution, instituted by the Government of India, in accordance with the competent legal advice shall be brought before the CABINET as per Second Schedule of TOBR.

Incorrect

For all the the cases except to withdraw prosecution, instituted by the Government of India, in accordance with the competent legal advice shall be brought before the CABINET as per Second Schedule of TOBR.

Unattempted

For all the the cases except to withdraw prosecution, instituted by the Government of India, in accordance with the competent legal advice shall be brought before the CABINET as per Second Schedule of TOBR.
Question 10 of 10

10. Question
Which of the following statements is not correct?
- The Prime Minister may call for papers from any Department
- The Finance Minister may call for papers from any Department in which financial consideration is involved
- The Law Minister may call for status report from the Chief Justice of India on any allegation against a sitting Judge of that Court
- Any Minister may ask to see papers in any other Department if they are related to, or required for, consideration of any case before him
Correct

Rule 5. Requests for Papers.- Only 3 types are mentioned in Transaction of Business Rules

(1) The Prime Minister may call for papers from any Department.

(2) The Finance Minister may call for papers from any Department in which financial consideration is involved.

(3) Any Minister may ask to see papers in any other Department if they are related to or required for the consideration of any case before him.

Incorrect

Rule 5. Requests for Papers.- Only 3 types are mentioned in Transaction of Business Rules

(1) The Prime Minister may call for papers from any Department.

(2) The Finance Minister may call for papers from any Department in which financial consideration is involved.

(3) Any Minister may ask to see papers in any other Department if they are related to or required for the consideration of any case before him.

Unattempted

Rule 5. Requests for Papers.- Only 3 types are mentioned in Transaction of Business Rules

(1) The Prime Minister may call for papers from any Department.

(2) The Finance Minister may call for papers from any Department in which financial consideration is involved.

(3) Any Minister may ask to see papers in any other Department if they are related to or required for the consideration of any case before him.

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Question 1 of 10

1. Question
Which scheme has been granted the National Award for e-Governance 2023 (Gold) for the Application of Emerging Technologies?
- PMKISAN
- SVAMITVA
- Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan
- Mission Karmayogi
Correct

SVAMITVA Scheme had won the prestigious Gold Prize in National Awards for e-Governance 2023 in the category “Use of Emerging Technology for Providing Citizen-Centric Services” organized by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG), Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions at Indore, Madhya Pradesh in October 2023.

Incorrect

SVAMITVA Scheme had won the prestigious Gold Prize in National Awards for e-Governance 2023 in the category “Use of Emerging Technology for Providing Citizen-Centric Services” organized by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG), Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions at Indore, Madhya Pradesh in October 2023.
:Hint:

Unattempted

SVAMITVA Scheme had won the prestigious Gold Prize in National Awards for e-Governance 2023 in the category “Use of Emerging Technology for Providing Citizen-Centric Services” organized by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG), Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions at Indore, Madhya Pradesh in October 2023.
:Hint:
Question 2 of 10

2. Question
What is the main objective of the Krishi UDAN scheme?
- Help MSME to transport goods
- Offer affordable freight movement through airplanes
- Offer affordable air transport to people
- Help farmers to transport agricultural produce
Correct

Krishi Udan Scheme was launched in August 2020 on international and national routes to assist farmers in transporting agricultural products to help improve their value realization. Krishi Udan Scheme 2.0 was announced on 27 October 2021 mainly focusing on transporting perishable food products from the hilly areas, North Eastern States and tribal areas. The scheme primarily covers 25 airports focusing on North Eastern, Hilly and Tribal region besides 33 airports in other regions/areas. Krishi Udan Scheme is a convergence scheme where eight Ministries/Departments namely Ministry of Civil Aviation, Department of Agriculture & Farmers' Welfare, Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying, Department of Fisheries, Ministry of Food Processing Industries, Department of Commerce, Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Ministry of Development of North-Eastern Region would leverage their existing schemes to strengthen the logistics for transportation of Agri-produce.

Incorrect

and national routes to assist farmers in transporting agricultural products to help improve their value realization. Krishi Udan Scheme 2.0 was announced on 27 October 2021 mainly focusing on transporting perishable food products from the hilly areas, North Eastern States and tribal areas. The scheme primarily covers 25 airports focusing on North Eastern, Hilly and Tribal region besides 33 airports in other regions/areas. Krishi Udan Scheme is a convergence scheme where eight Ministries/Departments namely Ministry of Civil Aviation, Department of Agriculture & Farmers' Welfare, Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying, Department of Fisheries, Ministry of Food Processing Industries, Department of Commerce, Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Ministry of Development of North-Eastern Region would leverage their existing schemes to strengthen the logistics for transportation of Agri-produce.
:Hint:

Unattempted

and national routes to assist farmers in transporting agricultural products to help improve their value realization. Krishi Udan Scheme 2.0 was announced on 27 October 2021 mainly focusing on transporting perishable food products from the hilly areas, North Eastern States and tribal areas. The scheme primarily covers 25 airports focusing on North Eastern, Hilly and Tribal region besides 33 airports in other regions/areas. Krishi Udan Scheme is a convergence scheme where eight Ministries/Departments namely Ministry of Civil Aviation, Department of Agriculture & Farmers' Welfare, Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying, Department of Fisheries, Ministry of Food Processing Industries, Department of Commerce, Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Ministry of Development of North-Eastern Region would leverage their existing schemes to strengthen the logistics for transportation of Agri-produce.
:Hint:
Question 3 of 10

3. Question
What is the share provided by the Centre in the implementation of projects under the “North-East Special Infrastructure Development Scheme”?
- 100%
- 75%
- 50%
- 25%
Correct

North East Special Infrastructure Development Scheme” (NESIDS) has been approved by the Government of India as a new Central Sector Scheme on 15.12.2017. Under the Scheme guidelines of NESIDS, 100% centrally funding is provided to the State Governments of North Eastern Region for the projects of physical infrastructure relating to water supply, power and connectivity enhancing tourism and Social infrastructure relating to primary and secondary sectors of education and health. The period of Scheme is 2017-18 to 2019-20. The funds are released in two installments of 40% and 60%. Initially a token amount of Rs. 10 lakh are released and balance amount of first installment are released after receipt of letter of award of the work.

Incorrect

North East Special Infrastructure Development Scheme” (NESIDS) has been approved by the Government of India as a new Central Sector Scheme on 15.12.2017. Under the Scheme guidelines of NESIDS, 100% centrally funding is provided to the State Governments of North Eastern Region for the projects of physical infrastructure relating to water supply, power and connectivity enhancing tourism and Social infrastructure relating to primary and secondary sectors of education and health. The period of Scheme is 2017-18 to 2019-20. The funds are released in two installments of 40% and 60%. Initially a token amount of Rs. 10 lakh are released and balance amount of first installment are released after receipt of letter of award of the work.
:Hint:

Unattempted

North East Special Infrastructure Development Scheme” (NESIDS) has been approved by the Government of India as a new Central Sector Scheme on 15.12.2017. Under the Scheme guidelines of NESIDS, 100% centrally funding is provided to the State Governments of North Eastern Region for the projects of physical infrastructure relating to water supply, power and connectivity enhancing tourism and Social infrastructure relating to primary and secondary sectors of education and health. The period of Scheme is 2017-18 to 2019-20. The funds are released in two installments of 40% and 60%. Initially a token amount of Rs. 10 lakh are released and balance amount of first installment are released after receipt of letter of award of the work.
:Hint:
Question 4 of 10

4. Question
Which one of the following Union Ministries launched the ‘LEAN Scheme’?
- Ministry of Civil Aviation
- Ministry of MSME
- Ministry of Defence
- Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Correct

Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises, Government of India, aims to implement the MSME Competitive (Lean) Scheme for MSMEs with an objective to enhance their productivity, efficiency, and competitiveness by reduction of wastages in processes, inventory management, space management, energy consumption, etc.

Incorrect

Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises, Government of India, aims to implement the MSME Competitive (Lean) Scheme for MSMEs with an objective to enhance their productivity, efficiency, and competitiveness by reduction of wastages in processes, inventory management, space management, energy consumption, etc.
:Hint:

Unattempted

Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises, Government of India, aims to implement the MSME Competitive (Lean) Scheme for MSMEs with an objective to enhance their productivity, efficiency, and competitiveness by reduction of wastages in processes, inventory management, space management, energy consumption, etc.
:Hint:
Question 5 of 10

5. Question
‘Padho Pardesh Scheme’ is implemented by which Union Ministry?
- Ministry of Education
- Ministry of Minority Affairs
- Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
- Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
Correct

The scheme was launched by the Ministry of Minority Affairs in 2006 under the Prime Minister's New 15 Point Programme for the Welfare of Minorities.

Incorrect

The scheme was launched by the Ministry of Minority Affairs in 2006 under the Prime Minister's New 15 Point Programme for the Welfare of Minorities.
:Hint:

Unattempted

The scheme was launched by the Ministry of Minority Affairs in 2006 under the Prime Minister's New 15 Point Programme for the Welfare of Minorities.
:Hint:
Question 6 of 10

6. Question
Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds (SWAYAM) is a programme initiated and designed to achieve cardinal principles of the education policy. Which of the following principles is/are correct?
1. Access
2. Equity
3. Quantity
4. Quality
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- 1 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 1, 2, and 4 only
- 1, 2, 3, and 4
Correct

SWAYAM is a programme initiated by Government of India and designed to achieve the three cardinal principles of Education Policy viz., access, equity and quality. The objective of this effort is to take the best teaching learning resources to all, including the most disadvantaged. SWAYAM seeks to bridge the digital divide for students who have hitherto remained untouched by the digital revolution and have not been able to join the mainstream of the knowledge economy.

Incorrect

SWAYAM is a programme initiated by Government of India and designed to achieve the three cardinal principles of Education Policy viz., access, equity and quality. The objective of this effort is to take the best teaching learning resources to all, including the most disadvantaged. SWAYAM seeks to bridge the digital divide for students who have hitherto remained untouched by the digital revolution and have not been able to join the mainstream of the knowledge economy.
:Hint:

Unattempted

SWAYAM is a programme initiated by Government of India and designed to achieve the three cardinal principles of Education Policy viz., access, equity and quality. The objective of this effort is to take the best teaching learning resources to all, including the most disadvantaged. SWAYAM seeks to bridge the digital divide for students who have hitherto remained untouched by the digital revolution and have not been able to join the mainstream of the knowledge economy.
:Hint:
Question 7 of 10

7. Question
Which one of the following programmes under Maternal and Child Health covers the four Ds, i.e., defect at birth, diseases, deficiencies, and development delays including disability ?
- Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram
- Rashtriya Kishor Swasthya Karyakram
- Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram
- Janani Suraksha Yojana
Correct

Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK) is a new initiative aiming at early identification and early intervention for children from birth to 18 years to cover 4 ‘D’s viz. Defects at birth, Deficiencies, Diseases, Development delays including disability.

Incorrect

Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK) is a new initiative aiming at early identification and early intervention for children from birth to 18 years to cover 4 ‘D’s viz. Defects at birth, Deficiencies, Diseases, Development delays including disability.
:Hint:

Unattempted

Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK) is a new initiative aiming at early identification and early intervention for children from birth to 18 years to cover 4 ‘D’s viz. Defects at birth, Deficiencies, Diseases, Development delays including disability.
:Hint:
Question 8 of 10

8. Question
The “Swadesh Darshan” scheme focuses on the development of
- Smart cities
- Heritage cities
- Religious tourism circuits
- Industrial corridors
Correct

The Swadesh Darshan scheme is aimed at developing theme-based tourist circuits, especially religious tourism circuits, to promote tourism in the country.

Incorrect

The Swadesh Darshan scheme is aimed at developing theme-based tourist circuits, especially religious tourism circuits, to promote tourism in the country.
:Hint:

Unattempted

The Swadesh Darshan scheme is aimed at developing theme-based tourist circuits, especially religious tourism circuits, to promote tourism in the country.
:Hint:
Question 9 of 10

9. Question
The “Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan” focuses on improving the quality of
- Higher education
- Secondary education
- Primary education
- Technical education
Correct

The Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) is a centrally sponsored scheme aimed at improving the quality and accessibility of secondary education in India.

Incorrect

The Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) is a centrally sponsored scheme aimed at improving the quality and accessibility of secondary education in India.
:Hint:

Unattempted

The Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) is a centrally sponsored scheme aimed at improving the quality and accessibility of secondary education in India.
:Hint:
Question 10 of 10

10. Question
The “Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana” focuses on
- Providing broadband connectivity in rural areas
- Rural electrification
- Skill development in villages
- Connecting rural areas with all-weather roads
Correct

The Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) aims to provide all-weather road connectivity to unconnected habitations in rural areas. This improves accessibility and mobility for rural populations.

Incorrect

The Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) aims to provide all-weather road connectivity to unconnected habitations in rural areas. This improves accessibility and mobility for rural populations.
:Hint:

Unattempted

The Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) aims to provide all-weather road connectivity to unconnected habitations in rural areas. This improves accessibility and mobility for rural populations.
:Hint:

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Question 1 of 10

1. Question
<SO/Steno 2023
Which of the following actions are required to be taken by a subscriber to reactivate his National Pension System (NPS) account frozen due to his failure to contribute at least the minimum contributions of ₹6,000 in a financial year?
1. Deposit the minimum contributions of the last financial years when the account was frozen.
2. Deposit ₹100 as a penalty.
3. Deposit a minimum contribution of ₹500.
4. Submit an unfreeze request.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- 2, 3, and 4 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1 and 4 only
- 1, 2, 3, and 4
Correct

Incorrect

:Hint:

Unattempted

:Hint:
Question 2 of 10

2. Question
<SO/Steno 2023
Consider the following statements regarding the application of CCS (Pension) Rules, 2021, to a Central Government Civil employee who was appointed against a post/vacancy that was advertised/notified for recruitment/appointment prior to the date of notification for the National Pension System, i.e., 22.12.2003, and joined service after 01.01.2004:
1. He shall be mandatorily covered under the National Pension System (NPS).
2. He shall be automatically covered under CCS (Pension) Rules, 1972 (now 2021).
3. He shall be required to exercise a one-time option to be covered under the CCS (Pension) Rules, 1972 (now 2021).
4. Based on the option exercised by the Government servant, his case will be placed before his appointing authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 3 and 4 only
- 2 only
Correct

Incorrect

:Hint:

Unattempted

:Hint:
Question 3 of 10

3. Question
<SO/Steno 2023
Consider the following statements in the context of CCS (Commutation of Pension) Rules, 1981:
1. Additional pension becoming due as a result of revision qualifies for commutation.
2. In a particular case, the revised authority for pension was issued on 29.01.2022, although the pensioner got the benefit of revised pension with effect from 01.02.2020. In this case, the commutation of additional pension shall also be admissible from 01.02.2020.
3. A Government servant to whom, pending assessment of final pension, provisional pension has been sanctioned under Rule 64 of the Pension Rules, shall not be eligible to commute a fraction of such provisional pension.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 2 only
- 1, 2, and 3
Correct

Incorrect

:Hint:

Unattempted

:Hint:
Question 4 of 10

4. Question
<SO/Steno 2023
Consider the following statements regarding 'emoluments' in terms of CCS (Pension) Rules, 2021:
1. 'Emoluments' for the purpose of fixation of pension shall mean basic pay which a Government servant was drawing immediately before his retirement but will exclude Non-Practicing Allowance.
2. Stagnation increment shall not be treated as emoluments for the calculation of retirement benefits.
3. Where a Government servant immediately before his retirement or death while in service, was on leave, and earned an increment which was not withheld, such increment, though not actually drawn, shall form part of the emoluments.
4. Pay drawn by a Government servant while on deputation to a State Government shall not be treated as emoluments but the pay which he would have drawn under the Central Government, had he not been on deputation to the State Government, shall alone be treated as emoluments.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1 and 4 only
- 3 and 4 only
- 2, 3, and 4 only
- 2 and 3 only
Correct

Incorrect

:Hint:

Unattempted

:Hint:
Question 5 of 10

5. Question
<SO/Steno 2021-22
Which of the following types of leave shall be counted as qualifying service, subject to the approval of the appointing authority, as per the CCS (Pension) Rules, 2021?
1. All leave during service for which leave salary is payable.
2. Extraordinary Leave (EOL) on a medical certificate.
3. EOL due to inability to join or re-join duty on account of civil commotion.
4. EOL for prosecuting higher scientific and technical studies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- 1 and 2 only
- 1, 2, and 3 only
- 3 and 4 only
- 1, 2, and 3
Correct

Incorrect

:Hint:

Unattempted

:Hint:
Question 6 of 10

6. Question
<SO/Steno 2021-22
Under the National Pension System (NPS), the monthly contribution by the Government servant appointed on or after 01.01.2004 would be:
- 14% of the Basic Pay
- 14% of the Basic Pay + DA
- 10% of the Basic Pay
- 10% of the Basic Pay + DA
Correct

Incorrect

:Hint:

Unattempted

:Hint:
Question 7 of 10

7. Question
<SO/Steno 2021-22
A Government servant superannuates on 31.07.2022 with a qualifying service of 30 years 11 months. His pay details are as under:
Basic Pay as on 31.07.2022 = ₹1,50,000
Personal Pay drawn: ₹4,000
Average Emoluments during the last 10 months of his service: ₹1,75,320
Commutation applied: Nil
What will be his basic pension?
- ₹87,230 per month
- ₹90,000 per month
- ₹1,00,000 per month
- ₹87,660 per month
Correct

Incorrect

:Hint:

Unattempted

:Hint:
Question 8 of 10

8. Question
<SO/Steno 2021-22
Who among the following shall be the competent authority for the final decision on the question of withholding/withdrawal of pension/gratuity in cases where the departmental proceedings were instituted under Rule 8 of CCS (Pension) Rules, 2021 (or Rule 9 of CCS (Pension) Rules, 1972) and where the report in which its findings are recorded has not been submitted by the subordinate authority to the President so far?
- President of India in consultation with UPSC
- President of India without consulting UPSC
- Secretary of the Administrative Ministry/Department concerned or CAG, as the case may be, in consultation with UPSC
- Secretary of the Administrative Ministry/Department concerned or CAG, as the case may be, without consulting UPSC
Correct

Incorrect

:Hint:

Unattempted

:Hint:
Question 9 of 10

9. Question
<SO/Steno 2019-20
For the purpose of fixation of pay in the re-employed post, the ignorable amount of pension is:
- ₹4,000
- ₹7,000
- ₹9,000
- ₹15,000
Correct

Incorrect

:Hint:

Unattempted

:Hint:
Question 10 of 10

10. Question
<SO/Steno 2019-20
In terms of the CCS (Pension) Rules, 2021, every Head of Department is required to prepare a list by the 15th day of every month, of all Government servants who are due to retire from that date, within the next:
- Six months
- Twelve months
- Fifteen months
- Eighteen months
Correct

Incorrect

:Hint:

Unattempted

:Hint:

Sample Test- GFR

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Question 1 of 10

1. Question
Which authority is to receive the external aid from the external funding agency in foreign currency or Indian rupees?
- Reserve Bank of India, Mumbai
- Reserve Bank of India, New Delhi
- Any branch of the Reserve Bank of India
- State Bank of India
Correct

Rule 265 Currency of external aid. The external aid shall flow from the Funding Agency in foreign currency or Indian Rupees and shall be received by the Reserve Bank of India, Mumbai which shall remit the rupee equivalent to the account of Controller, Aid Accounts and Audit, Department of Economic Affairs at Reserve Bank of India, New Delhi. The remittances shall be accounted as external loan/Grant receipts in the Consolidated Fund of India.

Incorrect

Rule 265 Currency of external aid. The external aid shall flow from the Funding Agency in foreign currency or Indian Rupees and shall be received by the Reserve Bank of India, Mumbai which shall remit the rupee equivalent to the account of Controller, Aid Accounts and Audit, Department of Economic Affairs at Reserve Bank of India, New Delhi. The remittances shall be accounted as external loan/Grant receipts in the Consolidated Fund of India.

Unattempted

Rule 265 Currency of external aid. The external aid shall flow from the Funding Agency in foreign currency or Indian Rupees and shall be received by the Reserve Bank of India, Mumbai which shall remit the rupee equivalent to the account of Controller, Aid Accounts and Audit, Department of Economic Affairs at Reserve Bank of India, New Delhi. The remittances shall be accounted as external loan/Grant receipts in the Consolidated Fund of India.
Question 2 of 10

2. Question
Which of the following does not comprise capital receipts?
- Disinvestment receipts
- External debt
- Repayment of loans and advances made by the Central Government
- Central taxes, duties and cess administered by CBDT
Correct

Capital Receipts. These comprise
(i) Internal debt (market loan, treasury bills, etc.);
(ii) External debt;
(iii) Repayment of loans and advances made by the Central Government; (iv) Disinvestment Receipts (v) Other Liabilities.

Incorrect

Capital Receipts. These comprise
(i) Internal debt (market loan, treasury bills, etc.);
(ii) External debt;
(iii) Repayment of loans and advances made by the Central Government; (iv) Disinvestment Receipts (v) Other Liabilities.

Unattempted

Capital Receipts. These comprise
(i) Internal debt (market loan, treasury bills, etc.);
(ii) External debt;
(iii) Repayment of loans and advances made by the Central Government; (iv) Disinvestment Receipts (v) Other Liabilities.
Question 3 of 10

3. Question
‘Contingency Fund’ means the Contingency Fund of India established under the Contingency Fund of India Act, 1950 in terms of
- Article 266(1) Of the Constitution of India
- Article 266(2) of the Constitution of India
- Article 267(1) of the Constitution of India
- Rule 652 of the Treasury Rules
Correct

“Contingency Fund” means the Contingency Fund of India established under the Contingency Fund of India Act, 1950, in terms of Article 267 (1) of the Constitution;

Incorrect

“Contingency Fund” means the Contingency Fund of India established under the Contingency Fund of India Act, 1950, in terms of Article 267 (1) of the Constitution;

Unattempted

“Contingency Fund” means the Contingency Fund of India established under the Contingency Fund of India Act, 1950, in terms of Article 267 (1) of the Constitution;
Question 4 of 10

4. Question
An officer entrusted by a Department of the Central Government with the responsibility of controlling the incurring of expenditure and/or the collection of revenue is called
- Comptroller and Auditor General
- Competent Authority
- Controlling Officer
- Financial Advisor
Correct

“Controlling Officer” means an officer entrusted by a Department of the Central Government with the responsibility of controlling the incurring of expenditure and/or the collection of revenue. The term shall include a Head of Department and also an Administrator;

Incorrect

“Controlling Officer” means an officer entrusted by a Department of the Central Government with the responsibility of controlling the incurring of expenditure and/or the collection of revenue. The term shall include a Head of Department and also an Administrator;

Unattempted

“Controlling Officer” means an officer entrusted by a Department of the Central Government with the responsibility of controlling the incurring of expenditure and/or the collection of revenue. The term shall include a Head of Department and also an Administrator;
Question 5 of 10

5. Question
Consider the following statements in the context of registration of suppliers:1. Central Purchase Organization (e.g. DGS& D) will prepare and maintain itemwise lists of eligible and capable suppliers.2. Such approved suppliers will be known as ‘Registered Suppliers’.3. All Ministries/Departments may utilize these lists as and when necessary.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- 1, 2 and 3
- 1 and 2 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1 only
Correct

Rule 150 Registration of Suppliers
(i) With a view to establishing reliable sources for procurement of goods commonly required for Government use , the Central Purchase Organisation (e.g. DGS&D) will prepare and maintain item-wise lists of eligible and capable suppliers. Such approved suppliers will be known as “Registered Suppliers”. All Ministries or Departments may utilise these lists as and when necessary. Such registered suppliers are prima facie eligible for consideration for procurement of goods through Limited Tender Enquiry. They are also ordinarily exempted from furnishing bid security along with their bids. A Head of Department may also register suppliers of goods which are specifically required by that Department or Office, periodically. Registration of the supplier should be done following a fair, transparent and reasonable procedure and after giving due publicity.

Incorrect

Rule 150 Registration of Suppliers
(i) With a view to establishing reliable sources for procurement of goods commonly required for Government u s e , t h e C e n t r a l P u r c h a s e Organisation (e.g. DGS&D) will prepare and maintain item-wise lists of eligible and capable suppliers. Such approved suppliers will be known as “Registered Suppliers”. All Ministries or Departments may utilise these lists as and when necessary. Such registered suppliers are prima facie eligible for consideration for procurement of goods through Limited Tender Enquiry. They are also ordinarily exempted from furnishing bid security along with their bids. A Head of Department may also register suppliers of goods which are specifically required by that Department or Office, periodically. Registration of the supplier should be done following a fair, transparent and reasonable procedure and after giving due publicity.

Unattempted

Rule 150 Registration of Suppliers
(i) With a view to establishing reliable sources for procurement of goods commonly required for Government u s e , t h e C e n t r a l P u r c h a s e Organisation (e.g. DGS&D) will prepare and maintain item-wise lists of eligible and capable suppliers. Such approved suppliers will be known as “Registered Suppliers”. All Ministries or Departments may utilise these lists as and when necessary. Such registered suppliers are prima facie eligible for consideration for procurement of goods through Limited Tender Enquiry. They are also ordinarily exempted from furnishing bid security along with their bids. A Head of Department may also register suppliers of goods which are specifically required by that Department or Office, periodically. Registration of the supplier should be done following a fair, transparent and reasonable procedure and after giving due publicity.
Question 6 of 10

6. Question
In which of the following cases, is a Government servant required to furnish security?
- Government servants entrusted with the custody of ofﬁce furniture, stationery and other articles required for ofﬁce management
- Drivers of Government Vehicles
- Librarian and Library stuff
- Government servants who actually handle cash
Correct

Rule 306 (1) Furnishing of security by Government servants handling cash. Subject to any general or special instructions prescribed by Government in this behalf, every Government servant, who actually handles cash or stores shall be required to furnish security, for such amount and in such form as Central Government or an Administrator may prescribe according to circumstances and local conditions in each case, and to execute a security bond setting forth the conditions under which Government will hold the security and may ultimately refund or appropriate it.

Incorrect

Rule 306 (1) Furnishing of security by Government servants handling cash. Subject to any general or special instructions prescribed by Government in this behalf, every Government servant, who actually handles cash or stores shall be required to furnish security, for such amount and in such form as Central Government or an Administrator may prescribe according to circumstances and local conditions in each case, and to execute a security bond setting forth the conditions under which Government will hold the security and may ultimately refund or appropriate it.

Unattempted

Rule 306 (1) Furnishing of security by Government servants handling cash. Subject to any general or special instructions prescribed by Government in this behalf, every Government servant, who actually handles cash or stores shall be required to furnish security, for such amount and in such form as Central Government or an Administrator may prescribe according to circumstances and local conditions in each case, and to execute a security bond setting forth the conditions under which Government will hold the security and may ultimately refund or appropriate it.
Question 7 of 10

7. Question
Powers to grant Government of India Guarantee vest with
- Secretary of the Ministry/Department concerned in consultation with the Financial Advisor
- Ministry of Finance, Budget Division
- Comptroller and Auditor General
- Controller General of Accounts
Correct

Rule 275 (3) Powers to grant Government of India Guarantee, including those on external borrowings, vests with the Budget Division, Department of Economic Affairs (DEA).

Incorrect

Rule 275 (3) Powers to grant Government of India Guarantee, including those on external borrowings, vests with the Budget Division, Department of Economic Affairs (DEA).

Unattempted

Rule 275 (3) Powers to grant Government of India Guarantee, including those on external borrowings, vests with the Budget Division, Department of Economic Affairs (DEA).
Question 8 of 10

8. Question
Consider the following statements in the context of ‘Lapse of Sanction’:1. A sanction for any fresh charge unless it is speciﬁcally renewed, lapses if no payment in whole or in part has been made during a period of 12 months from the date of issue of the sanction.
2. If the currency of a sanction is prescribed in the departmental regulation or is speciﬁed in the sanction itself, the sanction lapses on the expiry of such periods.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Correct

Rule 30 Lapse of Sanctions. A sanction for any fresh charge shall, unless it is specifically renewed, lapse if no payment in whole or in part has been made during a period of twelve months from the date of issue of such sanction. Provided that –
(i) when the period of currency of the sanction is prescribed in the departmental regulations or is specified in the sanction itself, it shall lapse on the expiry of such periods; or
(ii) when there is a specific provision in a sanction that the expenditure would be met from the Budget provision of a specified financial year, it shall lapse at the close of that financial year; or
(iii) in the case of purchase of stores, a sanction shall not lapse, if tenders have been accepted (in the case of local or direct purchase of stores) or the indent has been placed (in the case of Central Purchases) on the Central Purchase Organization within the period of one year of the date of issue of that sanction, even if the actual payment in whole or in part has not been made during the said period.

Incorrect

Rule 30 Lapse of Sanctions. A sanction for any fresh charge shall, unless it is specifically renewed, lapse if no payment in whole or in part has been made during a period of twelve months from the date of issue of such sanction. Provided that –
(i) when the period of currency of the sanction is prescribed in the departmental regulations or is specified in the sanction itself, it shall lapse on the expiry of such periods; or
(ii) when there is a specific provision in a sanction that the expenditure would be met from the Budget provision of a specified financial year, it shall lapse at the close of that financial year; or
(iii) in the case of purchase of stores, a sanction shall not lapse, if tenders have been accepted (in the case of local or direct purchase of stores) or the indent has been placed (in the case of Central Purchases) on the Central Purchase Organization within the period of one year of the date of issue of that sanction, even if the actual payment in whole or in part has not been made during the said period.

Unattempted

Rule 30 Lapse of Sanctions. A sanction for any fresh charge shall, unless it is specifically renewed, lapse if no payment in whole or in part has been made during a period of twelve months from the date of issue of such sanction. Provided that –
(i) when the period of currency of the sanction is prescribed in the departmental regulations or is specified in the sanction itself, it shall lapse on the expiry of such periods; or
(ii) when there is a specific provision in a sanction that the expenditure would be met from the Budget provision of a specified financial year, it shall lapse at the close of that financial year; or
(iii) in the case of purchase of stores, a sanction shall not lapse, if tenders have been accepted (in the case of local or direct purchase of stores) or the indent has been placed (in the case of Central Purchases) on the Central Purchase Organization within the period of one year of the date of issue of that sanction, even if the actual payment in whole or in part has not been made during the said period.
Question 9 of 10

9. Question
What is the Retention Period for the paid cheques returned by the Bank to theAudit/Accounts Office?
- 5 years
- 4years
- 3 years
- 1 year
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 10 of 10

10. Question
In terms of the provisions contained in the General Financial Rules, 2017, the surplus or obsolete goods are required to be disposed of by obtaining bids through advertised tender or by public auction where the assessed residual value of such goods is above :
- 2 lakhs
- 5 lakhs
- 10 lakhs
- 15 lakhs
Correct

Rule 218 Modes of Disposal. (i) Surplus or obsolete or unserviceable goods of assessed residual value above Rupees Two Lakh should be disposed of by : (a) obtaining bids through advertised tender or (b) public auction

Incorrect

Rule 218 Modes of Disposal. (i) Surplus or obsolete or unserviceable goods of assessed residual value above Rupees Two Lakh should be disposed of by : (a) obtaining bids through advertised tender or (b) public auction

Unattempted

Rule 218 Modes of Disposal. (i) Surplus or obsolete or unserviceable goods of assessed residual value above Rupees Two Lakh should be disposed of by : (a) obtaining bids through advertised tender or (b) public auction

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Question 1 of 10

1. Question
<SO/Steno 2023
Which of the following actions are required to be taken by a subscriber to reactivate his National Pension System (NPS) account frozen due to his failure to contribute at least the minimum contributions of ₹6,000 in a financial year?
1. Deposit the minimum contributions of the last financial years when the account was frozen.
2. Deposit ₹100 as a penalty.
3. Deposit a minimum contribution of ₹500.
4. Submit an unfreeze request.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- 2, 3, and 4 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1 and 4 only
- 1, 2, 3, and 4
Correct

Incorrect

:Hint:

Unattempted

:Hint:
Question 2 of 10

2. Question
<SO/Steno 2023
Consider the following statements regarding the application of CCS (Pension) Rules, 2021, to a Central Government Civil employee who was appointed against a post/vacancy that was advertised/notified for recruitment/appointment prior to the date of notification for the National Pension System, i.e., 22.12.2003, and joined service after 01.01.2004:
1. He shall be mandatorily covered under the National Pension System (NPS).
2. He shall be automatically covered under CCS (Pension) Rules, 1972 (now 2021).
3. He shall be required to exercise a one-time option to be covered under the CCS (Pension) Rules, 1972 (now 2021).
4. Based on the option exercised by the Government servant, his case will be placed before his appointing authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 3 and 4 only
- 2 only
Correct

Incorrect

:Hint:

Unattempted

:Hint:
Question 3 of 10

3. Question
<SO/Steno 2023
Consider the following statements in the context of CCS (Commutation of Pension) Rules, 1981:
1. Additional pension becoming due as a result of revision qualifies for commutation.
2. In a particular case, the revised authority for pension was issued on 29.01.2022, although the pensioner got the benefit of revised pension with effect from 01.02.2020. In this case, the commutation of additional pension shall also be admissible from 01.02.2020.
3. A Government servant to whom, pending assessment of final pension, provisional pension has been sanctioned under Rule 64 of the Pension Rules, shall not be eligible to commute a fraction of such provisional pension.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 2 only
- 1, 2, and 3
Correct

Incorrect

:Hint:

Unattempted

:Hint:
Question 4 of 10

4. Question
<SO/Steno 2023
Consider the following statements regarding 'emoluments' in terms of CCS (Pension) Rules, 2021:
1. 'Emoluments' for the purpose of fixation of pension shall mean basic pay which a Government servant was drawing immediately before his retirement but will exclude Non-Practicing Allowance.
2. Stagnation increment shall not be treated as emoluments for the calculation of retirement benefits.
3. Where a Government servant immediately before his retirement or death while in service, was on leave, and earned an increment which was not withheld, such increment, though not actually drawn, shall form part of the emoluments.
4. Pay drawn by a Government servant while on deputation to a State Government shall not be treated as emoluments but the pay which he would have drawn under the Central Government, had he not been on deputation to the State Government, shall alone be treated as emoluments.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1 and 4 only
- 3 and 4 only
- 2, 3, and 4 only
- 2 and 3 only
Correct

Incorrect

:Hint:

Unattempted

:Hint:
Question 5 of 10

5. Question
<SO/Steno 2021-22
Which of the following types of leave shall be counted as qualifying service, subject to the approval of the appointing authority, as per the CCS (Pension) Rules, 2021?
1. All leave during service for which leave salary is payable.
2. Extraordinary Leave (EOL) on a medical certificate.
3. EOL due to inability to join or re-join duty on account of civil commotion.
4. EOL for prosecuting higher scientific and technical studies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- 1 and 2 only
- 1, 2, and 3 only
- 3 and 4 only
- 1, 2, and 3
Correct

Incorrect

:Hint:

Unattempted

:Hint:
Question 6 of 10

6. Question
<SO/Steno 2021-22
Under the National Pension System (NPS), the monthly contribution by the Government servant appointed on or after 01.01.2004 would be:
- 14% of the Basic Pay
- 14% of the Basic Pay + DA
- 10% of the Basic Pay
- 10% of the Basic Pay + DA
Correct

Incorrect

:Hint:

Unattempted

:Hint:
Question 7 of 10

7. Question
<SO/Steno 2021-22
A Government servant superannuates on 31.07.2022 with a qualifying service of 30 years 11 months. His pay details are as under:
Basic Pay as on 31.07.2022 = ₹1,50,000
Personal Pay drawn: ₹4,000
Average Emoluments during the last 10 months of his service: ₹1,75,320
Commutation applied: Nil
What will be his basic pension?
- ₹87,230 per month
- ₹90,000 per month
- ₹1,00,000 per month
- ₹87,660 per month
Correct

Incorrect

:Hint:

Unattempted

:Hint:
Question 8 of 10

8. Question
<SO/Steno 2021-22
Who among the following shall be the competent authority for the final decision on the question of withholding/withdrawal of pension/gratuity in cases where the departmental proceedings were instituted under Rule 8 of CCS (Pension) Rules, 2021 (or Rule 9 of CCS (Pension) Rules, 1972) and where the report in which its findings are recorded has not been submitted by the subordinate authority to the President so far?
- President of India in consultation with UPSC
- President of India without consulting UPSC
- Secretary of the Administrative Ministry/Department concerned or CAG, as the case may be, in consultation with UPSC
- Secretary of the Administrative Ministry/Department concerned or CAG, as the case may be, without consulting UPSC
Correct

Incorrect

:Hint:

Unattempted

:Hint:
Question 9 of 10

9. Question
<SO/Steno 2019-20
For the purpose of fixation of pay in the re-employed post, the ignorable amount of pension is:
- ₹4,000
- ₹7,000
- ₹9,000
- ₹15,000
Correct

Incorrect

:Hint:

Unattempted

:Hint:
Question 10 of 10

10. Question
<SO/Steno 2019-20
In terms of the CCS (Pension) Rules, 2021, every Head of Department is required to prepare a list by the 15th day of every month, of all Government servants who are due to retire from that date, within the next:
- Six months
- Twelve months
- Fifteen months
- Eighteen months
Correct

Incorrect

:Hint:

Unattempted

:Hint:

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